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Answer :
Sure! Let's solve this step by step.
We have two parallel lines, [tex]\( m \)[/tex] and [tex]\( p \)[/tex]. A key property of parallel lines is that they have the same slope.
1. We're given that the slope of line [tex]\( m \)[/tex] is [tex]\(\frac{1}{25}\)[/tex].
2. Since lines [tex]\( m \)[/tex] and [tex]\( p \)[/tex] are parallel, they must have the same slope.
3. Therefore, the slope of line [tex]\( p \)[/tex] must also be [tex]\(\frac{1}{25}\)[/tex].
So, the slope of line [tex]\( p \)[/tex] is indeed [tex]\(\frac{1}{25}\)[/tex]. Thus, the correct answer is:
C. [tex]\(\frac{1}{25}\)[/tex]
We have two parallel lines, [tex]\( m \)[/tex] and [tex]\( p \)[/tex]. A key property of parallel lines is that they have the same slope.
1. We're given that the slope of line [tex]\( m \)[/tex] is [tex]\(\frac{1}{25}\)[/tex].
2. Since lines [tex]\( m \)[/tex] and [tex]\( p \)[/tex] are parallel, they must have the same slope.
3. Therefore, the slope of line [tex]\( p \)[/tex] must also be [tex]\(\frac{1}{25}\)[/tex].
So, the slope of line [tex]\( p \)[/tex] is indeed [tex]\(\frac{1}{25}\)[/tex]. Thus, the correct answer is:
C. [tex]\(\frac{1}{25}\)[/tex]
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